Hematology
Clinical discussions on blood disorders, coagulation, transfusion medicine, and hematologic malignancies.
Recent Discussions
How would approach the management of a patient with significantly positive anticardiolopin and beta 2 glycoprotein antibodies in the absence of any clotting (including obstetric) history but with significant thrombocytopenia (but no other features of active connective tissue disease)?
I would first evaluate for other causes of thrombocytopenia (most of them can also result in positive APL antibodies): CTD, medications, liver disease, pregnancy, malignancy, splenomegaly, etc.I would not treat stable asymptomatic thrombocytopenia.If worsening/symptomatic, I would treat like any oth...
What is the preferred treatment for a patient with an EBV+ monomorphic PTLD (DLBCL) not currently on immunosuppressive therapy?
For patients who are candidates for an anthracycline-based regimen, R-CHOP is usually given if CD20+ PTLD. Patients whose tumors do not express CD20 are treated with CHOP chemotherapy alone. R-CHOP can lead to ~ 65% of CR (Trappe et al., PMID 22173060).
How do you interpret a low VWF activity/antigen ratio, when both activity and antigen levels are above 50%?
This discrepancy is most likely caused by heterozygosity for a VWF variant that either causes VWD type 2M, with defective binding to GPIbalpha, or interferes with the binding of ristocetin, assuming that the activity represents ristocetin cofactor activity. The presence of a bleeding history suggest...
How will you manage a patient with symptomatic secondary CNS involvement from DLBCL not eligible for HD-MTX?
Patients with secondary CNS lymphoma have historically had a very poor prognosis. Depending upon circumstances, many patients today are treated with a chemotherapy regimen that penetrates the blood-brain barrier (e.g., MATRix). If the patient responds favorably and is fit, high-dose chemotherapy fol...
Would you still recommend bone marrow biopsy in an elderly non-transplant eligible patient with mild cytopenias if NGS from peripheral blood indicates MDS mutations?
Yes. The presence of mutations in peripheral blood is not diagnostic of MDS. The elderly can have CHIP mutations and mild cytopenias which qualify for CCUS rather than MDS. CCUS has a higher risk for progression to MDS but is not MDS by itself. Would get a bone marrow prior to diagnosing MDS and sta...
How do you manage drug-drug interactions between oral anticoagulants and the ARSI agents such as apalutamide and enzalutamide?
Commonly used oral anticoagulants, such as apixaban, rivaroxaban, and warfarin are substrates of hepatic cytochrome P450 enzymes (CYP). Co-administration of an AR signaling inhibitor (ARSI) variably affects the concentration of those drugs depending on the effect on the type of CYP enzymes. For exam...
How would you approach the treatment of an elderly patient with multiple myeloma and CALR+ myelofibrosis with elevated platelets?
Thank you! This is a great question and a very complicated case. Generally, I would be less concerned about thrombocytosis. I would focus more on the symptoms and splenomegaly that the patient may be experiencing. If they are not having significant MF-related symptoms or splenomegaly, then observati...
For an asymptomatic patient discovered during workup for elevated PT/PTT to have mild prothrombin deficiency, would you suggest any preoperative prophylaxis?
In someone with normal liver function otherwise, who was found on preoperative screening to have both mildly prolonged PT and PTT, AND the only abnormality found was a factor II (2, prothrombin) level >60%, I would not administer preoperative prophylaxis. However, I find the question confusing as it...
How should one approach an incidentally found T-cell gene arrangement?
When I see an incidental T-cell clonal rearrangement without any manifestation, my first question is how was this being measured? Many PCR-based methods have a difficult time distinguishing oligoclonal versus monoclonal T-cell populations. My favored test here is looking by flow cytometry at the T-c...
Would you treat a hemochromatosis carrier with IV iron if they have iron deficiency anemia in conjunction with elevated ferritin?
This scenario, with numbers like these, suggests another underlying issue. A carrier of hemochromatosis cannot typically have a ferritin level of >900 due to hemochromatosis. The TSAT of <10% corroborates this statement. If this patient is real, they likely have an underlying inflammatory disorder ...